4.5 of 4 Ratings
A 97-year-old man visits the urology clinic 5 days after experiencing urinary retention at an emergency department visit. The patient has a history of hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, stroke, dyslipidemia, a past myocardial infarction, and severe osteoarthritis in his right hip. He is not compliant with his medications and his multiple comorbidities are poorly managed. In the hospital, the patient’s urinary retention was treated with Foley catheterization. At clinic, the patient’s serum-specific prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 6.0 ng/mL (normal is < 4 ng/mL). Digital rectal examination (DRE) demonstrates a nontender prostate with several rock hard nodules. The patient's Foley is removed and he is able to urinate on his own. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?
CT abdomen and pelvis
Transrectal prostate biopsy
Repeat PSA test
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A 51-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an episode of syncope. He was at a local farmer's market when he fainted while picking produce. He rapidly returned to his baseline mental status and did not hit his head. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes and hypertension but is not currently taking any medications. His temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 173/101 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for clear breath sounds and a S4 heart sound. Rectal exam reveals a firm and nodular prostate that is non-tender and a fecal-occult sample that is negative for blood. Which of the following is this patient's presentation most concerning for?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Normal physical exam