Postpartum Endometritis

(M2.OB.17.4740) A 27-year-old G2P2002 is recovering in the hospital on postpartum day 3 after a low transverse C-section. During morning rounds, she reports a “pus-like” discharge and shaking chills overnight. She also endorses increased uterine cramping compared to the day before, but her postpartum course has otherwise been uneventful with a well-healing incision and normal vaginal bleeding. The patient’s prenatal care was complicated by HIV with a recent viral load of 400 copies/mL, type I diabetes well controlled on insulin, and a history of herpes simplex virus encephalitis in her first child. She did not have any genital lesions during the most recent pregnancy. Four days ago, she presented to the obstetric triage unit after spontaneous rupture of membranes and onset of labor. She made slow cervical change and reached full dilation after 16 hours, but there was limited fetal descent. Cephalopelvic disproportion was felt to be the reason for arrest of descent, so prophylactic ampillicin was administered and C-section was performed. A vaginal hand was required to dislodge the fetus’s head from the pelvis, and a healthy baby boy was delivered. On postpartum day 3, her temperature is 101.5°F (38.6°C), blood pressure is 119/82 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 14/min. Her incision looks clean and dry, there is mild suprapubic tenderness, and a foul yellow discharge tinged with blood is seen on her pad. Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for this patient’s presentation?

(M2.OB.16.4687) 29-year-old G2P2002 presents with foul-smelling lochia and fever. She is post-partum day three status-post cesarean section due to eclampsia. Her temperature is 101 F, and heart rate is 103. She denies chills. On physical exam, lower abdominal and uterine tenderness is present. Leukocytosis with left shift is seen in labs. Which of the following is the next best step in management?

(M2.OB.14.80) A 24-year-old woman presents to the labor and delivery floor in active labor at 40 weeks gestation. She has a prolonged course but ultimately vaginally delivers an 11 pound boy. On post operative day 2, she is noted to have uterine tenderness and decreased bowel sounds. She states she has been urinating more frequently as well. Her temperature is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg, pulse is 111/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a non-distended abdomen and a tender uterus. Pulmonary exam reveals minor bibasilar crackles. Initial laboratory studies and a urinalysis are pending. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?