5.0 of 6 Ratings
A 37-year-old female with a history of type II diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department complaining of blood in her urine, left-sided flank pain, nausea, and fever. She also states that she has pain with urination. Vital signs include: temperature is 102 deg F (39.4 deg C), blood pressure is 114/82 mmHg, pulse is 96/min, respirations are 18, and oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. On physical examination, the patient appears uncomfortable and has tenderness on the left flank and left costovertebral angle. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Obtain an abdominal CT scan
Obtain blood cultures
Obtain a urine analysis and urine culture
Begin intravenous treatment with ceftazidime
No treatment is necessary
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A 17-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with dysuria. She denies any hematuria or dyspareunia. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and she denies any recent sexual activity. Her temperature is 99.7°F (37.6°F), blood pressure is 127/67 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 17/min. An unusual odor is detected on inspection of the vagina and some gray discharge is noted. Speculum exam reveals a normal cervix and a bimanual exam is unremarkable for adnexal masses or tenderness. What is the next best step in management?
Complete blood count (CBC)
Urinalysis and Pap smear
Urinalysis, urine culture, and potassium hydoxide prep (KOH)
Urinalysis, urine culture, KOH prep, and urine pregnancy test
Urinalysis, KOH prep, and nucleic acid amplification tests for N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis
A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department for shortness of breath. She was walking up a single flight of stairs when she suddenly felt short of breath. She was unable to resolve her symptoms with use of her albuterol inhaler and called emergency medical services. The patient has a past medical history of asthma, constipation, irritable bowel syndrome, and anxiety. Her current medications include albuterol, fluticasone, loratadine, and sodium docusate. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 24/min, and oxygen saturation is 85% on room air. On physical exam the patient demonstrates poor air movement and an absence of wheezing. The patient is started on an albuterol nebulizer. During treatment, the patient's saturation drops to 72% and she is intubated. The patient is started on systemic steroids. A Foley catheter and an orogastric tube are inserted, and the patient is transferred to the MICU. The patient is in the MICU for the next seven days. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.Hemoglobin: 11 g/dL Hematocrit: 33% Leukocyte count: 9,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential Platelet count: 225,000/mm^3 Serum: Na+: 140 mEq/L Cl-: 102 mEq/L K+: 4.0 mEq/L HCO3-: 24 mEq/L BUN: 21 mg/dL Glucose: 129 mg/dL Creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL Ca2+: 10.1 mg/dL AST: 22 U/L ALT: 19 U/LUrine: Color: amber Nitrites: positiveLeukocytes: positiveSodium: 12 mmol/24 hours Red blood cells: 0/hpfWhich of the following measures would have prevented this patient's laboratory abnormalities?
Avoidance of systemic steroids
A 28-year-old G2P1001 presents for a routine obstetric visit in her 36th week of pregnancy. She has a history of type I diabetes controlled by insulin and delivered 1 child by normal spontaneous vaginal delivery 2 years ago. Earlier in this pregnancy, she had 2 episodes of burning with urination and frequent urination. Urinalysis each time confirmed a urinary tract infection, and both urine cultures isolated organisms sensitive to nitrofurantoin. Her symptoms resolved with 10-day courses of nitrofurantoin. She has no complaints today. Urinalysis is positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrites. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Admit to the hospital and treat with intravenous ceftriaxone
Treat with oral trimethroprim-sulfamethoxazole for 10 days then continue for prophylaxis until delivery
Treat with oral nitrofurantion for 10 days
Treat with oral nitrofurantion for 10 days then continue for prophylaxis until delivery
A 32-year-old G2P2 at 33 weeks and 4 days of gestation presents to the emergency room with low-grade fever, mild low back pain, and dysuria for 1 day. She has a history of urinary tract infections, including one during this current pregnancy that was treated successfully with cephalexin. On examination, she is nontoxic but mildly uncomfortable; she has CVA tenderness on her right side. Her urinalysis is positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrites, and she is admitted to the hospital for IV antibiotics with ceftriaxone. Her present condition places her at increased risk for which of the following:
Low birth weight
A 1-year-old female presents to the emergency department with 2 days of fever up to 103ºF. During the course of her work-up, a urine culture reveals gram negative rods and a urinary tract infection (UTI) is diagnosed. She is placed on ceftriaxone and quickly defervesces. Follow-up of the urine culture reveals the causal bacteria was E. coli, without any concerning resistance patterns and was susceptible to ceftriaxone. This is her first UTI and there is no family history of renal abnormalities or vesicourethral reflux. In addition to her current therapy, what additional steps should be taken during the management of this child's UTI?
Prophylactic antibiotic therapy to prevent future UTIs
Renal bladder ultrasound
Repeat urine culture
A 29-year-old G1P0 woman at 24 weeks gestation presents to her physician with complaints of burning with urination, and she reports that she has been urinating much more frequently than usual over the past several days. She otherwise is doing well and has experienced no complications with her pregnancy or vaginal discharge. Her temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 112/82 mmHg, pulse is 89/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Examination is significant for suprapubic discomfort upon palpation and a gravid uterus. There is no costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis shows increased leukocyte esterase, elevated nitrites, 55 leukocytes/hpf, and bacteria. The physician prescribes a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Add ciprofloxacin to antibiotic regimen
Add penicillin to antibiotic regimen
Perform a renal ultrasound
Send a urine culture
Test for gonorrhea and chlamydia
A 23-year-old pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation presents with burning upon urination. She states it started 1 day ago and has been worsening despite drinking more water and taking cranberry extract. She otherwise feels well and is followed by a doctor for her pregnancy. Her temperature is 97.7°F (36.5°C), blood pressure is 122/77 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an absence of costovertebral angle tenderness and a gravid uterus. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
A 74-year-old woman presents to the emergency department for shortness of breath and bilateral lower extremity pitting edema. She has had exacerbations like this in the past and notes that she has not been taking her home heart medications as scheduled. Review of systems is negative for any other symptoms including GI, urinary, and musculoskeletal symptoms. Physical exam reveals bilateral pulmonary crackles, lower extremity pitting edema that extends to the hip, and no abdominal tenderness. Neurological exam is unremarkable and the patient is at her baseline mental status. She is subsequently started on BiPAP, given furosemide, and admitted to the hospital with rapid improvement in her symptoms. Routine admission workup includes urinalysis, which shows >100,000 cfu/mL of E. coli. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient for this finding?