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A 43-year-old Caucasian female with a long history of uncontrolled migraines presents to general medical clinic with painless hematuria. She is quite concerned because she has never had symptoms like this before. Vital signs are stable, and her physical examination is benign. She denies any groin pain, flank pain, or costovertebral angle tenderness. She denies any recent urinary tract infections or dysuria. Urinary analysis confirms hematuria and a serum creatinine returns at 3.0. A renal biopsy reveals papillary necrosis and a tubulointerstitial infiltrate. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Sickle cell disease
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