5.0 of 1 Ratings
A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent dysuria, pain with ejaculation, mild lower abdominal pain, and difficulty voiding for the last four months. There is no weight loss or change in stools. He has no known family history of cancer. His past medical history is notable for irritable bowel syndrome and hypertension. On examination, he is well-appearing but mildly uncomfortable. There are no abdominal or rectal masses appreciated; the prostate is mildly tender to palpation, but with normal size, texture, and contour. Urinalysis reveals trace leukocyte esterase and negative nitrite, negative blood, and no bacteria on microscopy. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Tamsulosin and ciprofloxacin
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