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A 25-year-old G1P0000 presents to her obstetrician’s office for a routine prenatal visit at 32 weeks gestation. At this visit, she feels well and has no complaints. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated, aside from her Rh negative status, for which she received Rhogam at 28 weeks gestation. The patient has a past medical history of mild intermittent asthma and migraine headaches. She currently uses her albuterol inhaler once a week and takes a prenatal vitamin. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse is 70/min, blood pressure is 117/68 mmHg, and respirations are 13/min. Cardiopulmonary exam is unremarkable, and abdominal exam reveals a gravid uterus with fundal height at 30 centimeters. Bedside ultrasound reveals that the fetus is in transverse lie. The patient states that she prefers to have a vaginal delivery. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
External cephalic version
Internal cephalic version
Caesarean section at 38 weeks
Select Answer to see Preferred Response