A 66-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 6-week history of bloody stools. He describes the blood as bright red wisps that float on the surface of the stool. He has no pain with bowel movements but notes on occasion he may strain. He does not endorse fatigue, fever, constipation, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, weight loss, or dyspnea. His last colonoscopy was 3 years prior to presentation and was benign. He has a medical history significant for hypertension that is well-controlled with lisinopril. He had an uncomplicated appendectomy when he was 23 years old. He has no family history of gastrointestinal malignancy. His temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse is 76/min, and respirations are 16/min. On physical exam, the patient's abdomen is soft, non-distended, and non-tender with normal bowel sounds and without organomegaly or masses. The anus is patent without fissures, hemorrhoids, or skin tags. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?