Review Question - QID 217134

A 32-year-old woman presents to an emergency room with 1 week of difficulty speaking and progressive left-sided weakness as well as double vision, loss of coordination, and difficulty walking. She denies pain when moving her eyes, problems with urination or defecation, or sick contacts. Her medical history is unremarkable. She has no family history of autoimmune disease. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, respirations are 15/min, and O2 saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals 5/5 strength in her right upper and lower extremities and 4/5 strength in her left upper and lower extremities. Further diagnostic examination reveals human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive status and a cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) T-cell count of 54 cells/mm^3 (normal 500-1400 cells/mm^3). A T2-weighted fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (T2-FLAIR) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) sequence is shown in Figure A. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s neurologic disease?