Review Question - QID 216773

A 26-year-old woman presents to her doctor for a pap smear. During evaluation, she states that she is upset that she is unable to have sex with her boyfriend. She reports feeling interested and safe with him but once vaginal penetration occurs, she experiences extreme pain that prevents them from continuing. She has no significant past medical history and has no other associated symptoms. Her temperature is 96.9°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 120/79 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 15/min. Physical exam reveals no abnormalities or trauma in the vulva or vagina, as well as no contractions or pain upon speculum examination. Bimanual examination finds no abnormalities in the uterus. A comprehensive laboratory workup is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?