Review Question - QID 216767

A 27-year-old G2P1 woman at 32 weeks' gestation presents to the labor and delivery triage area after feeling contractions at home over the past day. She reports that her contractions are about 30 minutes to 2 hours apart and are associated with minimal pain. She has no past medical history, and her pregnancy course has been uncomplicated. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin and occasionally takes acetaminophen for headaches. On physical exam, the uterine fundus is firm and can be palpated above the umbilicus. Transabdominal ultrasound reveals a fetus in cephalic presentation, and a cervical exam reveals a closed cervix with physiologic discharge. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg, pulse is 94/min, and respirations are 12/min. Fetal heart tracing is reassuring and reactive, and tocodynamometry shows no contractions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?