Review Question - QID 216744

A 23-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician due to a history of low mood and fatigue. She states that approximately once every 4 weeks she experiences mood swings, fatigue, and headaches. She states her symptoms have affected her relationship and her performance at work. She started menarche when she was 13 years old and has had regular periods since. She has no past medical history and takes no medications. Her sister has a past medical history of major depressive disorder. Her temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 100/50 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient has normal strength and sensation with a steady gait. She has a calm affect and is agreeable on history. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Pelvic exam reveals a closed cervix and no cervical motion or adnexal tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?