Review Question - QID 216591

A 45-year-old man with a past medical history of obesity presents with a concern about his sexual performance. He has a history of depression which is well managed with fluoxetine. He states that since starting the medication, his sexual drive has increased, yet he is unable to achieve orgasm. As a result, he refuses to take the medication anymore. He has a past medical history of diabetes and notes that his home blood glucose readings have been higher lately. His temperature is 98.3°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 127/82 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals an obese man in no acute distress with a normal affect and non-focal neurologic exam. The physician agrees to change the patient’s antidepressant. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?