Review Question - QID 216507

A 7-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after an episode of jerking his extremities followed by confusion. This has happened in the past, but his mother thought he was fabricating his symptoms. She has taken him to a free health clinic to have him seen by a doctor who prescribed medication; however, she has been unable to fill the prescription. He has had an MRI of the brain with no acute findings in the past. The mother states this episode lasted about 3 minutes and involved full-body jerking. After the episode, the child was non-responsive but was breathing on his own. The child has a history of migraine headaches with aura that resolve with ibuprofen. He is otherwise healthy and has no medical problems or recent illness and is up to date on his vaccinations. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 100/64 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient is protecting his airway but is unable to answer questions. He is able to move the right upper and lower extremity. He initially is unable to move his left upper and lower extremity and has a left facial droop; however, after a few minutes, he has 4/5 strength in the affected side with resolution of his facial weakness. The mother notes that this is similar to his past episodes. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?