Review Question - QID 216505

A 37-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with nausea, vomiting, lower abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding. She describes the pain as intermittently sharp and severe. She menstruates irregularly and her last period was 3 months ago. She is sexually active and intermittently uses condom barrier protection for contraception. The patient has a medical history significant for obesity, polycystic ovary syndrome, and pelvic inflammatory disease. Her temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 145/82 mmHg, pulse is 105/min, and respirations are 18/min. Her BMI is 32 kg/m^2. On physical exam, the patient has abdominal tenderness in the lower quadrants bilaterally. Pelvic exam reveals blood in the vaginal canal as well as bilateral adnexal and cervical motion tenderness. Transabdominal ultrasound is performed, which reveals a normal uterus with no products of conception or gestational sac. Serum beta human chorionic gonadotropin (beta-hCG) is 1,847 mIU/mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management?