Review Question - QID 216495

A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely with altered mental status. He uses intravenous drugs and is unable to offer a history. He was found unconscious in a park. His temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg, pulse is 156/min, and respirations are 26/min. Physical exam reveals an obtunded man covered in vomit, with track marks on his arm and several skin abscesses. The patient is given 4 liters of Ringer lactate and intravenous antibiotics. As the fourth liter of fluids is finishing, the patient is noted to have jugular venous distension and an oxygen saturation of 92% on nonrebreather. He is subsequently intubated. An ECG is obtained as seen in Figure A. The patient is started on norepinephrine, and his blood pressure is subsequently found to be 85/44 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?