Review Question - QID 216238

A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency room with 3 days of fever, headache, and vomiting. He has no relevant medical history and does not use any illicit drugs. He is accompanied by his wife, who is his healthcare proxy according to his advance directive. His temperature is 40°C (104°F), blood pressure is 110/50 mmHg, and pulse is 115/min. After obtaining a lumbar puncture, a diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis is made. The patient is informed that his diagnosis requires hospitalization for antibiotic treatment and isolation due to the infectious nature of his disease. He refuses admission and insists on being discharged given that he is alert, oriented, and has a full understanding of the risk to himself and others. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?