Review Question - QID 215188

A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. His symptoms started 2 weeks ago and have been gradually worsening. The patient has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and obesity. He sees a chiropractor as his primary medical provider and does not take any medications. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 170/95 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 90% on room air. Physical exam reveals bilateral crackles and wheezes and 2+ pitting lower extremity edema to the mid-shins. A chest radiograph is performed as seen in Figure A. The patient is started on bilevel positive airway pressure ventilation and is given intravenous furosemide. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?