Review Question - QID 215155

A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset pain in his right leg that started about 4 hours ago. He has never experienced this pain before and it has gradually increased to 10/10 in severity. His right leg is now numb and he cannot move it. His past medical history is significant for acute coronary syndrome with occlusion of the left main coronary artery 2 months ago. He currently smokes 1 pack per day and has a 50-pack-year history. His temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 134/76 mmHg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 18/min. His right leg is soft, non-edematous, and cool. The right dorsal pedal and posterior tibial pulses are non-palpable. He has no sensation to light touch over the dorsum of his right foot. Passive ankle plantarflexion or dorsiflexion does not increase the pain. Which of the following is the best next step in management?