Review Question - QID 215078

A 34-year-old G1P1 woman at 36 weeks of gestation presents to her obstetrician for a routine prenatal visit. The patient reports no concerns. She has a history of mild asthma, well-controlled with a rescue albuterol inhaler, as well as a history of a large submucosal uterine leiomyoma that was surgically removed via open approach 2 years ago. She has been receiving routine prenatal care, although she missed some second-trimester appointments. Her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 136/79 mmHg, pulse is 91/min, and respirations are 18/min. She becomes slightly short of breath while speaking with no crackles or wheezing on lung exam. A grade 2/6 systolic flow murmur is present on cardiac exam. She has a gravid uterus with a fundal height of 36 cm. The fetal pulse is 150 beats/min by Doppler ultrasound. The patient notes that she has felt occasional contractions over the past week but has not had any leakage of fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?