Review Question - QID 215066

A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with profuse vaginal bleeding. She has had these symptoms in the past; however, today she called her gynecologist who told her to come to the emergency department given the persistence of her symptoms over the past 1 year. The profuse bleeding always happens during her menstrual period with an otherwise regular duration of menses with no intermenstrual cycle bleeding. She denies chest pain, dyspnea, or fainting. The patient has a past medical history of photosensitive rashes, kidney dysfunction, anemia, mood disorders, and recurrent pregnancy losses. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam reveals a non-tender abdomen with a large amount of blood and clots in the vaginal vault. A transvaginal ultrasound is unremarkable. Coagulation studies are notable for a normal prothrombin time (PT) and prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Which of the following would be the most appropriate in the long-term management for this patient?