Review Question - QID 214879

A 43-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician to establish care. Approximately 1 month ago, she began noticing swelling affecting both ankles. She denies any chest pain, shortness of breath, abdominal pain, or changes in her bowel or urinary habits. About 5 months ago, she presented to the emergency department for headache and vision changes due to "really high blood pressure" and was discharged home with a medication she takes as prescribed but cannot recall the name. She has a medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and pulse is 80/min. On physical examination, the patient has a normal S1 and S2 without appreciable murmurs, rubs, or gallops. There is no evidence of jugular venous distension. Her lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. She has symmetric pitting edema affecting both of her ankles with no associated rashes or ulcers. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?