Review Question - QID 214859

A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 0 aborta 1, presents to her obstetrician at 28 weeks' gestation for a routine prenatal visit. She does not have any acute complaints and denies any vaginal bleeding, leakage of fluid, or abdominal contractions. Her prior pregnancy was complicated by a missed abortion requiring suction curettage. At that time she was administered anti-D immunoglobulin. Her current pregnancy is with a new partner. She is otherwise healthy and only takes prenatal vitamins. She denies any smoking or illicit drug or alcohol use. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 17/min. Physical examination is notable for a fundal height of 30 cm. The fetal heart rate is noted to be 140/min. Routine serum studies are notable for a Rh(D)-negative blood type and negative anti-D antibodies. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?