Review Question - QID 214791

A 31-year-old man presents to the emergency department for fever, malaise, and cough. For the last week, his cough has been progressively worsening, and he has been noticing blood in his sputum. He denies any recent travel or sick contacts and infrequently smokes cigarettes. Approximately 5 weeks ago, he presented with similar symptoms and was found to have a right upper lobe lung infiltrate, a CD4 count of 40/mm^3, and an HIV viral load of 115,000 copies/mL. He was appropriately treated and discharged home. Four weeks after initiation of treatment, his CD4 count was over 400/mm^3 and HIV viral load was negligible. His temperature today is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 20/min. A radiograph of the chest demonstrates new nodules in the left upper lobe and hilar adenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?