Review Question - QID 214701

A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for headaches. His headaches began a few weeks prior to presentation and have progressively worsened. They affect the left side of his head, are throbbing in quality, and are 7/10 in severity. He takes acetaminophen every 6 hours, which improves the headaches to a 5/10 in severity. He denies any photophobia or phonophobia but endorses mild nausea. He reports mild vision blurriness but denies any focal motor or sensory deficits or being a “headache person.” He has a medical history of hypertension and smokes 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the last 15 years. His daughter and mother suffer from migraine headaches. His blood pressure is 155/98 mmHg and pulse is 86/min. Neurological examination is unremarkable, and funduscopic findings are shown in Figure A. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?