Review Question - QID 214548

A 36-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with blurry vision of the right eye that has progressively worsened over the course of 2 days. She reports that approximately 8 months ago she experienced right upper extremity numbness that self resolved over the course of 2 weeks. Neurological examination is remarkable for visual acuity of 20/200 in the right eye and 20/25 in the left eye. There is an afferent pupillary defect and pain with movement of the right eye. An MRI of the brain and spinal cord with gadolinium demonstrates demyelinating lesions affecting the right optic nerve and the spinal cord, as well as non-enhancing periventricular lesions. She is started on 5 days of intravenous methylprednisolone and her symptoms begin improving. The patient is about to be discharged and undergo physical therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?