Review Question - QID 214417

A 33-year-old woman with a past medical history of Crohn disease, depression, and pelvic inflammatory disease presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She states that her symptoms started yesterday and have been worsening until today. She has been unable to have a bowel movement during this time, and every time she eats she vomits shortly thereafter. Her initial vitals are unremarkable, and physical exam is notable for a distended and tympanic abdomen. One hour later, the patient complains of worsening abdominal pain. Her temperature is 97.9°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 104/64 mmHg, pulse is 140/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory values are drawn at that time as seen below.

Hemoglobin: 14 g/dL
Hematocrit: 44%
Leukocyte count: 10,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 233,000/mm^3
Lactate: 5 mmol/L (normal < 1.0 mmol/L)

The patient's exam is notable to have significant rebound tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?