Review Question - QID 214270

A 32-year-old woman presents to the office with abdominal bloating, fatigue, and mood swings. Her symptoms have been occurring for multiple years, and each episode lasts for about a week. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Menses occur every month and last for 5 days with moderate flow. She has a history of anxiety (well-controlled with therapy) and tension-type headaches. She denies any recent changes in her sleep pattern or interest in activities but does note an increase in appetite with cravings for sweet foods. She takes no medications and has no drug allergies. She is in a monogamous relationship with her husband and uses condoms for birth control. She denies dyspareunia or changes in her libido. The patient’s temperature is 98°F (36.6°C), pulse is 70/min, blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg, and respirations are 12/min. Physical exam is notable for breast tenderness. Serum chemistries, blood count, pregnancy test, and TSH are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?