Review Question - QID 213812

A 37-year-old G1P0 woman presents to the emergency department with a headache and abdominal pain. She is 37 weeks pregnant and has been non-compliant with her prenatal care, including not taking medications for her high blood pressure or diabetes. She has a past medical history of morbid obesity, diabetes, chronic kidney disease, hypertension, bipolar disorder, and malingering. She is demanding morphine and becomes aggressive when it is denied to her. Her temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 157/105 mm Hg, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Initial lab studies are ordered as seen below.

Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 5,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 117,000/mm^3

Serum:
Na+: 141 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 5.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
BUN: 29 mg/dL
Glucose: 156 mg/dL
Creatinine: 2.2 mg/dL (baseline 1.9 mg/dL)
Ca2+: 9.8 mg/dL

Urine:
Color: Amber
Protein: Positive
Blood: Negative

The patient is admitted to the hospital and treated appropriately with resolution of her headache and abdominal pain. While on the floor, the patient appears somnolent but is able to answer questions when aroused with a sternal rub. Neurological exam is notable for cranial nerves II-XII intact, 1+ reflexes throughout, and intact strength/sensation in the patient's upper and lower extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?