Review Question - QID 213721

A 45-year-old Chinese man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and chronic back pain presents to the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain for the past 4 weeks. He endorses an intermittent abdominal pain concentrated in the epigastric region. He cannot appreciate any clear association of the pain with oral intake or other precipitating factors. The patient takes metformin, lisinopril, and ibuprofen. Review of systems is positive for some dark stool 2 days ago, lightheadedness, an unintentional 5 lb weight loss over the past month, and some palpitations. He denies any fever, chills, night sweats, nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. A physical examination was significant for mild tachycardia and conjunctival pallor. The abdomen is soft with some mild tenderness to palpation at the epigastric region. What is the most appropriate next step at this time?