Review Question - QID 213697

A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with confusion and a headache. His wife found him like this and notes that he seemed to be completely normal and at his baseline 30 minutes prior. The patient has a medical history of diabetes, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Neurological exam is notable for right arm and leg weakness. The patient struggles to name objects during the exam and demonstrates slurred speech. Point of care glucose is 105 mg/dL. The rest of his exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?