Review Question - QID 213209

A 25-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for recurrent headaches. The patient states that the headaches have been going on for the past week, and he is concerned that he may have cancer. Based on his symptoms, he strongly believes that he needs further diagnostic workup. The patient works as a nurse at the local hospital and is concerned that he is going to lose his job. The patient is also concerned about his sexual performance with his girlfriend, and as a result he has ceased to engage in sexual activities. Finally, the patient is concerned about his relationship with his family. He states that his concerns related to these issues has persisted for the past year. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, diabetes, hypertension, and irritable bowel syndrome. His current medications include metformin, insulin, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide. The patient has a family history of colorectal cancer in his grandfather and father. The patient’s neurological exam is within normal limits. The patient denies having a headache currently. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?