Review Question - QID 212770

A 34-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room for abdominal pain. The pain began yesterday around the umbilical region and slowly migrated to the right lower quadrant. It is worse with movement and is alleviated with rest. Her menses are regular without pain, and her urine beta-hCG is negative. The patient denies any past medical history. An abdominal computed tomography scan demonstrates a fluid-filled, dilated appendix suggestive of appendicitis, and the patient is subsequently taken to the operating room for laparoscopic appendectomy. Intraoperatively, the surgeon converts to open appendectomy due to severe adhesions near the pelvic area and notes findings shown in Figure A. What is the next step in management for this patient?