Review Question - QID 212537

A 62-year-old woman is seen in the hospital for neutropenic fever. She was admitted 1 week ago for newly diagnosed acute myeloid leukemia. Due to her chemotherapy, she became pancytopenic. Last night, during a packed red blood cell transfusion, she became febrile to 102.6°F (39.3°C), her blood pressure was 92/55, pulse was 112/min, respirations were 16/min, and oxygen saturation was 94% on room air. The transfusion was stopped, intravenous fluids were started, and blood cultures were drawn. The patient also complained of chest pain and shortness of breath. A chest radiograph was obtained and was normal. This morning, she reports “dark urine” but denies dysuria or abnormal vaginal discharge. Her prophylactic antimicrobials started at the time of her chemotherapy include acyclovir, levofloxacin, and fluconazole. The patient’s temperature this morning is 98.7°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 110/72 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 17/min with an oxygen saturation of 95% on room air. On physical examination, she has 1+ pitting peripheral edema of bilateral lower extremities to the mid-shin. Her jugular venous pressure is 6 cm. Her labs show neutropenia, normocytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, elevated lactose dehydrogenase, elevated total bilirubin, and decreased haptoglobin. Coagulation studies show an increase in bleeding time with normal D-dimer levels. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?