Review Question - QID 211073

A 27-year-old woman with a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and anemia of chronic disease presents to the emergency department for nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that started this morning. She has been unable to tolerate oral intake during this time. Her temperature is 98.7°F (37°C), blood pressure is 107/58 mmHg, pulse is 97/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. A physical exam is notable for left lower quadrant abdominal tenderness. A urine pregnancy test is positive, and a serum beta-hCG is 1,110 mIU/mL. A transvaginal ultrasound demonstrates no free fluid and is unable to identify an intrauterine pregnancy. The patient states that she intends to have children in the future. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?