Review Question - QID 211059

A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain that started 1 hour ago. He has a medical history of diabetes and hypertension as well as a 40 pack-year smoking history. He takes lisinopril and metformin. He recently retired from being a security guard and lives at home with his wife. His temperature is 98.7°F (37°C), blood pressure is 97/58 mmHg, pulse is 130/min, respirations are 23/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. An abdominal ultrasound demonstrates focal dilation of the aorta with peri-aortic fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?