Review Question - QID 210894

A 30-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for pain in his left ankle while at karate practice. The patient has a medical history notable for type 1 diabetes and is currently being treated for an episode of acute bacterial sinusitis with moxifloxacin. The patient recently had to have his insulin dose increased secondary to poorly controlled blood glucose levels. Otherwise, the patient takes ibuprofen for headaches and loratadine for seasonal allergies. His temperature is 98.7°F (37°C), blood pressure is 114/68 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals a young healthy man in no acute distress. Pain is elicited over the Achilles tendon with dorsiflexion of the left foot. Pain is also elicited with plantar flexion of the left foot against resistance. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?