Review Question - QID 210772

A 32-year-old G6P1 woman presents to the obstetrician for a prenatal visit. She is 8 weeks pregnant. She has had 4 spontaneous abortions in the past, all during the first trimester. She tells you she is worried about having another miscarriage. She has been keeping to a strictly organic diet and takes a daily prenatal vitamin. She used to smoke a pack a day since she was 16 but quit after her first miscarriage. On a previous visit following a fetal loss, the patient tested positive for VDRL and negative for FTA-ABS. Her temperature is 98.7°F (37°C), blood pressure is 117/78 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Labs are drawn, as shown below:

Leukocyte count: 7,800/mm^3
Platelet count: 230,000/mm^3
Hemoglobin: 12.6 g/dL
Prothrombin time: 13 seconds
Activated partial thromboplastin time: 48 seconds
International normalized ratio: 1.2

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?