Review Question - QID 210714

A 33-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for left-sided knee pain. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis but states that he has been unable to control his pain with escalating doses of ibuprofen and naproxen. He has not had any recent history of trauma. His past medical history includes diabetes mellitus and hypertension. His temperature is 102.0°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 167/108 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals a warm and tender joint that is very tender to the touch and with passive range of motion. The patient declines a gait examination secondary to pain. Inflammatory markers are elevated and radiographs demonstrate no evidence of fracture or acute injury. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?