Review Question - QID 210629

A 66-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a wellness exam. She noticed mild spotting a few days prior to her presentation. Her last menstrual period was when she was 53 years of age, and she denies any trauma to the area. She is sexually active with 1 male partner and does not use condoms. Medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. She is currently taking metformin and lisinopril. Her last pap smear was normal. She is 5 ft 5 in (165.1 cm), weighs 185 lbs (84 kg), and BMI is 30.8 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 15/min. Pelvic examination demonstrates a normal-sized uterus with no adnexal masses. There are no vulvar, vaginal, or cervical lesions. Stool testing for blood is negative and an endometrial biopsy is performed, which demonstrates simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?