Review Question - QID 210375

A 37-year-old man comes to the emergency department for eye pain. The patient is a construction worker and was drilling metal beams when he suddenly felt a sharp pain in his right eye. Since then, the vision in his right eye has seemed blurry and his eye “has not stopped tearing.” The patient’s medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. His medications include metformin, captopril, and lovastatin. He has a mother with glaucoma and both his brother and father have coronary artery disease. Upon physical examination, there is a conjunctival injection present in the right eye with no obvious lacerations to the eyelids or defects in extraocular eye movements. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 137/98 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Pupils are equal and reactive to light. No afferent pupillary defect is appreciated. The unaffected eye has 20/20 visual acuity. The patient refuses to participate in the visual acuity exam of the right eye due to pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?