Review Question - QID 210071

A 42-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider with vision loss. She reports that twice over the last 2 weeks she has had a sudden “blackout” of the vision in her right eye. She notes that both episodes were painless and self-resolved over approximately a minute. The patient’s past medical history is significant for hypertension, diet-controlled diabetes mellitus, and hypothyroidism. Her family history is notable for coronary artery disease in the patient’s father and multiple sclerosis in her mother. Her temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 141/92 mmHg, pulse is 65/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Ophthalmologic and neurologic exams are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?