Review Question - QID 109813

A 27-year-old G3P2002 presents to the clinic for follow-up after her initial prenatal visit. Her last period was 8 weeks ago. Her medical history is notable for obesity, hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and eczema. Her 2 current children are healthy. Her current pregnancy is with a new partner after she separated from her previous partner. Her vaccinations are up to date since the delivery of her second child. Her temperature is 98°F (37°C), blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 18/min. Her physical exam is unremarkable. Laboratory results are shown below.

Hemoglobin: 14 g/dL
Hematocrit: 41%
Leukocyte count: 9,000/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 210,000/mm^3

Blood type: O
Rh status: Negative

Urine:
Epithelial cells: Rare
Glucose: Positive
WBC: 5/hpf
Bacteria: None

Rapid plasma reagin: Negative
Rubella titer: > 1:8
HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody screen: Negative

Gonorrhea and Chlamydia NAAT: negative
Pap smear: High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HGSIL)

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?