Review Question - QID 109762

A 13-year-old girl presents to her primary care physician due to concerns of not having her 1st menstrual period. She reports a mild headache but otherwise has no concerns. She does not take any medications. She states that she is sexually active and uses condoms inconsistently. Medical history is unremarkable. Menarche in the mother and sister began at age 11. The patient is 62 inches tall and weighs 110 pounds. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2 °C), blood pressure is 105/70, pulse is 71/min, and respirations are 14/min. On physical exam, she is Tanner stage 1 with a present uterus and normal vagina on pelvic exam. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is negative. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) serum level is 0.5 mIU/mL (normal is 4-25 mIU/mL) and luteinizing hormone (LH) serum level is 1 mIU/mL (normal is 5-20 mIU/mL). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?