Review Question - QID 109071

A 48-year-old female with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, and asthma undergoes a scheduled total abdominal hysterectomy for symptomatic fibroids. She is given a dose of preoperative prophylactic antibiotics. Her urinary catheter is removed on postoperative day 1. She is on low-molecular-weight heparin for deep venous thrombosis prophylaxis. On postoperative day four, the patient complains of abdominal pain. She denies cough, nausea, vomiting, or dysuria, but has had 3-4 loose stools over her hospitalization. Her temperature is 101.0°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 97/59 mmHg, pulse is 106/min, and respirations are 16/min. The surgical wound has new erythema with dusky patches and abundant cloudy discharge. The patient reports a newly decreased sensation around her wound site. Her lungs are clear to auscultation and her abdomen is soft with hypoactive bowel sounds. She has no costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis is within normal limits and urine culture grows >100,000 CFU/mL of Escherichia coli. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?