Review Question - QID 108975

A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of a worsening headache. The headache started 1 month ago. It is constant and “all over” but gets worse when she is lying down or in the setting of bright lights. A review of systems is significant for a low-grade fever, night sweats, cough, malaise, poor appetite, and unintentional weight loss of 12 pounds in the last 2 months. The patient is sexually active with multiple male partners and reports inconsistent condom use. She has a history of intravenous drug use and has not been to a doctor in the last 2 years. Her temperature is 100.4°F (38.0°C), blood pressure is 110/78 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 98% O2 on room air. On physical exam, pain is elicited upon passive flexion of the patient’s neck. A CT scan shows ventricular enlargement. A CD4+ count is 57 cells/µL blood. A lumbar puncture is performed with the following findings:

Cerebrospinal fluid:
Opening pressure: 210 mmH2O
Glucose: 32 mg/dL
Protein: 204 mg/dL
India ink stain: Positive

Leukocyte count and differential:
Leukocyte count: 200/mm^3
Lymphocytes: 100%
Red blood cell count: 2/mm^3

Which of the following treatments most directly addresses the underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?