Review Question - QID 108918

A 41-year-old man presents to his primary care provider after seeing bright red blood in the toilet bowl after his last 2 bowel movements. He reports that he also noticed some blood mixed with his stool. The patient denies abdominal pain or any changes in his stool habits. He notes a weight loss of 8 pounds in the last 2 months with no changes in his diet or exercise habits. His medical history is significant for an episode of pancreatitis 2 years ago for which he was hospitalized for several days. He drinks 2-3 beers on the weekend and he has never smoked. He has no family history of colon cancer. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 135/78 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 14/min. On physical exam, his abdomen is soft and non-tender to palpation. Bowel sounds are present, and there is no hepatomegaly. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?