Review Question - QID 108902

A 37-year-old G2P1001 woman presents to her obstetrician’s office at 31 weeks of gestation for a 1 day history of decreased fetal movement. She states that although she occasionally feels some movement, it is decreased from baseline. She denies any gush of fluid, vaginal bleeding, or painful contractions. This pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes for which the patient was prescribed insulin. She reports not always taking postprandial fingersticks so she rarely uses her insulin. She also had a urinary tract infection in the first trimester that was successfully treated with nitrofurantoin. The patient has a past medical history of obesity and rosacea and she had an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery 6 years ago. At this visit, the patient’s temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 148/71 mmHg, pulse is 75/min, and respirations are 14/min. The patient appears comfortable and has a fundal height of 33 centimeters. An initial Doppler ultrasound exam is unable to detect fetal heart tones. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?