Review Question - QID 108890

A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with pain that started after he visited his daughter and helped her move into her new apartment. The patient states that the pain is likely related to his recent travel and moving activities. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, type 2 diabetes, multiple concussions while he served in the army, and GERD. He is currently taking metformin, lisinopril, omeprazole, and a multivitamin. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 131/84 mmHg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 14/min. On a physical exam, pain is elicited upon palpation of the patient's lower back. Flexion of the patient's leg results in pain that travels down the patient's lower extremity. The patient's cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal exams are within normal limits. Rectal exam reveals normal rectal tone. The patient denies any difficulty caring with defecation or urination. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?