Review Question - QID 108690

A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right lower quadrant abdominal pain that began suddenly 1 hour ago with vaginal bleeding. She denies nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. She has no chronic medical conditions and does not take any medications but says that she has had sexually transmitted infections 2 or 3 times in the past. She does not smoke, drinks socially, and has 1 male sexual partner with whom she has unprotected sex. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks prior to presentation. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 125/76 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, she appears uncomfortable and has tenderness to palpation of the abdomen diffusely with guarding. Serum ß-hCG is 4,000 IU/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?