Review Question - QID 108686

A 19-year-old female presents to the emergency room with 6 days of lower abdominal pain. She states that her symptoms have progressed and she now feels febrile as well. She also notes an episode of non-bloody diarrhea 2 days ago and has been increasingly nauseated. The patient has no significant past medical history but was recently treated with ciprofloxacin for an uncomplicated urinary tract infection. She also notes irregular periods, with a last menstrual period 6 weeks ago. She is a college student who has had 3 sexual partners in the last year with inconsistent use of barrier protection. Her temperature is 100.5°C (38.1°F), blood pressure is 102/68 mmHg, pulse is 97/min, and respirations are 14/min. On exam, the patient is noticeably uncomfortable. There is marked tenderness to palpation in the suprapubic region and right lower quadrant, with voluntary guarding but no rebound. A pelvic exam shows moderate purulent discharge in the vaginal vault, cervical motion tenderness, and a tender adnexal mass on the right side. While being evaluated in the emergency room, she vomits three times. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treating this patient’s condition?